gk @ manage

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MANAGE National Institute of Agri. Extension Mgmt.

Special GK inputsMANAGE National Institute of Agri. Extension Mgmt.

(An organisation of Ministry of Agriculture, Govt. of India)

The National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management, popularly known as MANAGE, is an

apex national institute set up in 1987 as an autonomous society under the Ministry of Agriculture,

Government of India. MANAGE is the Indian response to the challenges of management in a rapidly

growing agricultural sector.

The institute is located on a 16 hectare campus in the serene rural surroundings of Rajendranagar, 15

km away from Hyderabad city.

Courses offered :

2-year PGPABM (Post-Graduate Programme in Agri-business Management): Open only to the

graduates in agricultural and allied technology areas. The programme aims at enabling meritorious

agricultural graduates to acquire the critical competencies to function as effective Agri-Business

managers. The programme, launched in 1996, is recognised by the All India Council for Technical

Education. . On completion of the programme, successful candidates are awarded with the PostGraduate Diploma in Agri-Business Management.

Notification and Entrance Procedure: The notification for the course will be in the newspapers like

Employment News, in some more days. The written test is normally conducted in January/February.

There will be a computer based objective type written test conducted by MANAGE followed by

GD/Extempore and a Personal Interview with Psychological Test.

The written test seen last year, had the following pattern:

Section I Agriculture (questions upto graduation level) 120 questions.

Section II Mathematical Aptitude (Basic Maths) 30 questions

Section III Statistics 30 questionsSection IV General English 60 questions

There was no negative marking for the test till the last year.

DAESI (Diploma in Agricultural Extension Services for Input Dealers)

Eligibility: Dealers/Candidates sponsored by companies and prospective dealers with 10+2 standard

qualification.

Duration: One year

Course Fee: Rs.27,000/- in lump sum at a time of admission

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There are no written test for the admission in this course till last year, but the Personal Interview is

conducted.

AWASCM (Post Graduate Programme in Agri-ware-housing and Cool Chain Management) is the

first of its kind in India. This course has been specially designed to fabricate students by explicitly

training them in both managerial and technical field along with other accommodating courses so as to

make them equipped in the highly shifting scenario of agriculture commerce.

PGP AJMC (Post Graduate Programme in Agriculture Journalism and Mass Communication):

A one year Post Graduate Programme in Agriculture and Journalism and Mass Communication has

been launched by MANAGE from 2003.

CONTACT:

National Institute of Agricultural Extension Management (MANAGE)

Rajendranagar, Hyderabad - 500 030

Phones: General: +91 - 40 - 24016702 to 706

Fax: +91 - 40 - 24015388

Email: [email protected]

Best of Luck !

Academic Team - PT

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Sample questions for your reference

1. The years of Green Revolution was(1) fifties

(2) late sixties and seventies(3) late fifties and early sixties

(4) early fifties

2. The Yellow Revolution resulted in(1) increase in flower production(2) increase in oil production(3) increase in gold production

(4) increase in wheat production

3. In early fifties the per capita availability offoodgrains was(1) 395 g (2) 425 g(3) 295 g (4) 500 g

4. In world, pulse crops are grown in largest area in

(1) India(2) India and USA(3) India and China(4) USA, India and China

5. Main traditional crops, are(1) moong, soybean, summer groundnut,

sunflower(2) soybean, groundnut, sugarcane

(3) sugarcane, cotton(4) (1) and (3)

6. Cropping pattern is changing due to

(1) domestic demands(2) export requirement

(3) (1) and (2)(4) None of the above

7. Short duration varieties were introduced to(1) utilize residual moisture after post- kharif and

post-rabi season(2) avoid land-wastage(3) (1) and (2)(4) None of the above

8. Residual moisture after post-kharif and post-rabi

season can be utilized by(1) growing short-duration varieties(2) inter-cropping(3) (1) and (2)(4) None of the above

9. Which organization was the fore-runner to theWorld Trade Organisation?(1) The World Bank(2) General Agreement on Tariff and Trade(3) The United Nations Development Fund(4) The League of Nations

10. Foodgrain production was quite low afterindependence because of after partition

(1) law and order problems(2) drought

(3) high-yielding areas and Punjab went toPakistan

(4) (1) and (3)

11. In 1950-51 the foodgrain production was ..million tonnes

(1) 51 (2) 100(3) 30 (4) 70

12. In 1950-51 the foodgrain production was 51million tonnes but in 1994-95 it was 1901 milliontonnes resulting in a buffer stock of 35 milliontones.(1) The statement is true

(2) Buffer stock was 37 million tonnes, rest ofthe statistics is correct.(3) The statement is false.(4) 51 million tonnes is wrong, it was 61 million

tones.

13. The forest area increased form 404.8 million ha in

1950-51 to 682.8 lakh has in 1992-93.(1) Area increased, but from 404.8 to 700 million

ha(2) Area decreased to nearly two-third(3) The statement is correct(4) Correct estimated is not available

14. From 1950-51 to 1993-94 gross cropped area

under(1) non-food grains increased

(2) foodgrains increased(3) non-foodgrains decreased(4) remained same

15. On June 2000, the production of rice and wheatwas(1) 15.2 and 27.76 million tones

(2) 27.6 and 15.12 million tones(3) 152 and 277.6 million tones

(4) None of the above

16. The relative share of foodgrains and non-foodgrains in gross cropped area in 1993-94 is(1) 66.9% (2) 70%

(3) 72% (4) 75%

17. The main crop seasons are(1) three (2) four(3) two (4) five

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18. The main crop seasons are(1) Kharif, rabi, jayad(2) Kharif(3) Kharif and rabi

(4) Rabi

19. The main crops of Kharif are(1) rice, jowar, bajra(2) maize, cotton, sugarcane

(3) (1) and (2)(4) None of the above

20. The main crops of rabi are(1) wheat, jowar, barley(2) gram, linseed, rapeseed, mustard(3) (1) and (2)(4) None of the above

21. The summer crops are(1) rice, maize

(2) groundnut(3) (1) and (2)


22. Rice is a(1) summer and kharif crop(2) monsoon crop

(3) rabi crop(4) None of the above

23. Wheat is a(1) rabi crop (2) summer crop(3) kharif crop (4) winter crop

24. Sugarcane is a

(1) kharif crop (2) summer crop(3) jayad crop (4) rabi crop

25. Maize Zea mays(1) Kharif and summer crop(2) Rabi crop(3) Winter crop(4) Monsoon crop

26. Groundnut is a(1) Kharif crop(2) Summer crop(3) Rabi crop

(4) Kharif and summer crop

27. Where are the headquarters of NATO(1) Brussels(2) London(3) Washington DC(4) Paris

28. The Kyoto Protocol of 1997 is related to(1) Asian Trade Development

(2) International Cyber Crime(3) International Drug Trafficking

(4) Global Climate Change

29. Indian seed programme includes(1) central and state government(2) ICAR, SAUs(3) Public, Private and co-operative sectors

(4) All of the above

30. Indian Seed Sector consists of(1) NSC, SFCI, SSCs(2) Private seed companies

(3) None of the above(4) All of the above

31. A new variety has to be notified.(1) Not necessarily(2) True(3) Only food grain crops(4) Only cash crops

32. Seed is an essential commodity.(1) Yes

(2) No(3) In some states

(4) During drought lines only

33. The seed was declared essential under(1) Essential Commodity Act, 1955(2) Seed Act, 1971

(3) Essential Commodity Act, 1971(4) None of these

34. Seed production and distribution is controlledunder(1) The Seed (Control) Order, 1983(2) The Essential Commodity Act, 1995(3) Both of the above


35. The seed (control) order was promulgated in(1) 1983 (2) 1971(3) 1982 (4) 1973

36. New Seed policy is in operation since(1) 1988 (2) 1990

(3) 1993 (4) 1989

37. Main aim of New Seed Policy is to makeavailable to Indian farmers(1) Best quality seed material available anywhere

in world(2) Best quality plant material available

anywhere in world(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

38. The plant quarantine clearance is requested under(1) Plant, Fruit and Seed (Regulation of import in

India) Order, 1989(2) Plant (Regulation of import in India) Order,

1989(3) Seed Act, 1989


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39. Export of seed is allowed(1) liberally except a few which needs licence(2) liberally allowed(3) licences is required

(4) not allowed

40. Overall improvement in seed quality was the aimof:(1) National Seed Project III (SNP III)

(2) National Agriculture Control Board(3) National Seed Board(4) None of the above

41. Central committee has notified following totalvarieties of agricultural and horticultural crops(1) 2,385 (2) 3,000(3) 2.000 (4) 3,157

42. NSP-III stands for(1) National Seed Project III

(2) National Security Programme III(3) National Seed Programme III

(4) National Safety Plan III

43. During 1996-97, the fertilizer consumption was(1) 14.93 million tones(2) 15.83 million tones

(3) 18.23 million tones(4) 16.00 million tonnes

44. The lower consumption of fertilizers is mainlydue to(1) sharp price rise(2) drought(3) more farmers are depending upon manure(4) None of the above

45. Centrally sponsored scheme of Balanced and

Integrated use of fertilizer aims(1) to popularize the use of organic source of

nutrients(2) to produce organic manure(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

46. Scheme on conducting studies and formulatinglong-term mechanization strategies for each agro-climatic zone started under(1) Five-Year 9th Plan

(2) Five-Year 6th Plan(3) Five-Year 8th Plan

(4) Five-Year 4th Plan

47. Scheme on popularization of Agriculturalequipment in North-Eastern states was started in(1) Five-Year 9th Plan(2) Five-Year 8th Plan(3) Five-Year 6th Plan(4) Five-Year 5th Plan

48. The Plant quarantine activities aims at

(1) preventing introduction of exotic pests and

diseases into the country

(2) preventing export of infectious material(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) None of the above

49. Plant quarantine activities also work for(1) controlling / containing exotic plant diseases

already introducing in the country(2) controlling / containing exotic pests already

introduced in the country

(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) None of the above

50. Plant activities are implemented through(1) Destructive Insects and Pests Act(2) Plants, Fruits and Seeds Order 1989(3) Insecticide and Biogas Act, 1989(4) Both (1) and (2)

51. Technology missions were started on(1) oilseeds, pulses

(2) maize(3) Both (1) and (2)


52. From 1987-88 to 1996-97 the oilseed productionwas(1) doubled

(2) tripled(3) quadrupled(4) None of the above

53. Oilseeds production in 1996-97 was(1) 24.4 million tones(2) 24.8 million tones(3) 30 million tones

(4) 30.3 million tonnes

54. The loan given for purchasing of seeds andfertilizers is called as(1) Long term (2) Short term(3) Medium (4) All of these

55. Which of the following holding is smaller than

economic holding and may be able to provide areasonable standard of leaving to the cultivator,but not sufficient for the purpose of agriculturaloperation is known as?(1) Economic holding

(2) Operational holding(3) Basic holding

(4) Optimum holding

56. The law of diminishing retime applies moregenerally to which of the following industry(1) Chemical (2) Film(3) Agriculture (4) Cloths

57. In India which of the following state has

maximum number of tube-wells and pumpsets?(1) Uttarranchal

(2) Himachal Pradesh

(3) Uttar Pradesh

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(4) Madhya Pradesh

58. A farmer having less than one hectare irrigated

land is known as(1) Big farmers(2) Small farmers(3) Marginal farmers(4) None of these

59. In which of the following farming land is ownedby Government and workers work as employersgetting their wages regularly.

(1) Peasant farming(2) Collective fanning(3) Co-operative farming(4) State fanning

60. Which of the following is a major objective of

planning commission?(1) Increase agricultural production

(2) Increase employment opportunities(3) Reduce the pressure of population on land


61. The Food Corporation of India was established inJanuary .. to supply grains at reasonable pricesto the consumers.

(1) 1945 (2) 1955(3) 1965 (4) 1975

62. The Food Corporation of India was stated initiallywith the purpose of purchasing......... crop only.(1) Rice (2) Wheat(3) Maize (4) Gram

63. The breach of Agricultural economics which deals

with the principles and practices of farming withan object of obtaining the maximum possiblereturn from the land as a unit under a soundfarming programme is known as(1) Farm management(2) Agricultural finance

(3) Agricultural marching(4) Agricultural Prices

64. Which of the following is the economic processby which goods and services are exchanged and

their values determined in term of money prices?(1) Credit

(2) Marketing(3) Budgeting(4) Consumer surplus

65. Which of the following principle is very useful indetermining the best use of limited resources?(1) Law of diminishing regime(2) Law substitution

(3) Law of equimarginal returns(4) Law of opportunity cost

66. In which of the following farming the owner ofland is farmer(1) Pleasant (2) Mixed(3) Diversified (4) Specialized

67. In which of the following farming, large numberof farmers own and they manage the farm iscalled as(1) State farming

(2) Co-operative farming(3) Collective farming(4) None of the above

68. Medium term loan are repayable up to .........years.(1) Three (2) Five(3) Two (4) None

69. Short term laon is given for a period of

...............year.(1) One (2) Two

(3) Three (4) Four

70. Long term loan is given for the period of...........year.(1) 5 to 15 (2) 25 to 35(3) 45 to 55 (4) 65 to 75

71. In Mahalwari system of land tenure, revenue wascollected by(1) District Collector(2) BDO(3) Village Panchayat(4) None of the above

72. Which of the following holding is smaller than

economic holding and may be able to provide areasonable standard or living to the cultivator butnot sufficient for the purpose of Agriculturaloperations is known as(1) Multiple farming(2) Co-operative farming(3) Specialized farming(4) Irrigated farming

73. A farming system in which more than 50%receipts are derived from one sources:(1) Collective farming(2) Co-operative farming

(3) Specialized farming(4) Irrigation farming

74. The best use of limited resources is studied underwhich of the following law:(1) Law of substation(2) Diminishing return(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

75. In India, Agricultural Price Commission wasestablished during the year.

(1) 1945 (2) 1955

(3) 1965 (4) 1975

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76. Reserve Bank of India was established during theyear(1) 1925 (2) 1923

(3) 1935 (4) 1940

77. In India, Agricultural Refinance Corporation wasestablished during the year;(1) 1962 (2) 1965

(3) 1968 (4) 1978

78. Which of the following is main function of

NABARD, established in 1982?(1) NABARD(2) Financing the weaker section(3) Refinancing the Bank(4) Financing the Agricultural Universities

79. Which of the following is broad leaved species?(1) Teak

(2) Sal(3) Sterculea


80. Which of the following is shade bearer tree?(1) Magnifera indica(2) Mimosopa elengi

(3) Delinea indica(4) All of the above

81. Which of the following tree is suitable for sportindustry?(1) Morus Alba (2) Silver fir(3) Spruce (4) Ailanthus

82. Forest area in India is(1) 45 million hectare

(2) 52 million hectare(3) 73 million hectare(4) 62 million hectare

83. U.P. Private Forest Act was passed in(1) 1947 (2) 1948

(3) 1945 (4) 1955

84. Himachal Pradesh Forest Act was passed in(1) 1948 (2) 1958(3) 1968 (4) 1978

85. Which of the following is best grazing season in

forest?(1) Pre monsoon(2) During monsoon(3) Post-monsoon(4) Around the year

86. Rangers training first started during the year of(1) 1971 (2) 1978

(3) 1988 (4) 1989

87. Ranger training first started at

(1) Bhopal

(2) Dehra Dun(3) Moussurrc(4) Calcutta (Kolkata)

88. Indian Forest Act 1927, as amended up to date,with short notes, in year(1) 1971 (2) 1987(3) 1991 (4) 2001

89. First Van Mahotsava was organized in India on(1) 1 July, 1946 (2) 1 July, 1947(3) 1 Aug. 1948 (4) 1 July, 1950

90. Sore forestry is the part of(1) Farm forestry(2) Social forestry(3) Recreation forestry(4) Protected forestry

91. Indian forests are a source of

(1) Pulp wood(2) Gums

(3) Lac(4) All of the above

92. National Forest Policy was passed in(1) 1948

(2) 1952(3) 1965(4) None of the above

93. The aim(s) of social forestry was(1) to provide fuel, fodder and small timber for

the community(2) to generate income and employment in rural

areas(3) to help maintain environmental stability


94. Under man-made forestry programme, which ofthe following important scheme have been

undertaken(1) Plantation of quick growing species

(2) Plantation of economic species(3) Plantation to rehabilitate degraded forests(4) All of the above

95. Headquarters of World Trade Organisation

(WTO) is located in(1) New York

(2) Tokyo(3) Geneva(4) Berlin

96. Van Mahotsav was inaugurated in(1) 1950 (2) 1951(3) 1952 (4) 1935

97. Central Rice Research Institute is located at(1) Port Blair (2) Cuttack

(3) Manila (4) Bangalore

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98. Which variety of rice is suitable for both rabi andkharif in Andhra Pardesh and eastern states?(1) VL Dhan 81 (2) Neerja(3) CR 629-256 (4) Pro Agro 103

99. Janaki and Ravana are recently released varietiesof(1) Wheat (2) Maize(3) Rice (4) None of these

100. Which variety of rice is grown in shallow lowlandareas of eastern India?

(1) VL Dhan (2) Neerja(3) CR 629-256 (4) Pro Agro 103

101. In rainfed upland, rice ecosystems gave higherreturns with intercropping of(1) Pigeon pea

(2) Soybean(3) Groundnut


102. International Rice Research Institute is located at(1) Mexico (2) Cuttack(3) Manila (4) Florida

103. Most of the varieties of rice have .. of

chromosomes(1) 10 pairs (2) 11 pairs(3) 12 pairs (4) 13 pairs

104. The rice grain is a(1) Caryopsis(2) Psoropsis(3) Both of the above

(4) None of these

105. How many amino acids are normally present inrice?(1) 15 (2) 17(3) 19 (4) 21

106. Rice is crop, cultivated purely in rainfed upland in

(1) West Bengal (2) Bihar(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) All of these

107. Directorate of Rice Research is located at(1) Haryana (2) Patna

(3) Cuttack (4) Hyderabad

108. Rice is a(1) short day plant(2) long day plant(3) both of the above(4) None of the above

109. The red or purple colour of rice is owing to(1) anthocyanin

(2) non-anthocyanin(3) plastids

(4) None of these

110. Consider the following statements: In paddy,fertilizer application should be directed to theI. oxidised zoneII. reduced zone

III. surface of these statementsChoose the correct combination

(1) I is correct(2) II and III are correct(3) II is correct

(4) I and II are correct

111. The growth period, crop performance and

productivity are determined by the combination of(1) temperature(2) photoperiod(3) light intensity(4) All of the above

112. The rice crop tolerates submergence because(1) the plant does not need oxygen

(2) the plant has mechanism to transport oxygenthrough leaves

(3) bacteria keep the rhizosphere oxidized(4) oxygen penetrating the root zone through air

movement is sufficient

113. Rice is grown in

(1) riverine alluvium(2) red-yellow(3) red loamy(4) terai

114. Rice production is the highest in areas having:I. high rainfallII. canal irrigated lands

III. sunny days during and after mid JuneChoose the correct combination using the codes

given below(1) I is correct(2) II and III are correct(3) II is correct(4) I and II are correct

115. Laterite, coastal alluvium, red, sandy, mixed redand black, and medium and shallow black soilsare suitable for the(1) Wheat (2) Rice(3) Maize (4) Barley

116. Total number of cropping patterns involving

paddy and jowar is(1) 10 (2) 29(3) 30 (4) 60

117. Which type of days require for tuberization insweet potato(1) Short days (2) Long days(3) Day neutral (4) All types

118. Yield of Sree Bhadra, cultivar of sweet potato is

(1) 10-15 q/ha (2) 15-20 q/ha

(3) 20-25 q/ha (4) 30-35 q/ha

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119. Which variety is resistant to spidermite?(1) S-856 (2) S-850(3) H-95 (4) H-110

120. Sugarbeet is a(1) Tetraplarid(2) Hexaploid(3) Octaploid


121. Aster yellow is disease of following plant

(1) Daucus carda(2) Aster(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

122. Toxic gases from brick kilns are the main cause of

(1) Die back (2) Black top(3) Twig die back (4) Stem canker

123. Which are self pollinated vegetable crops?

(1) Carrot, Garlic, Okra, Tomato(2) Onion, Date Palm, Sweet Potato(3) Pea, Okra, Potato, Chilli(4) Brinjal, Lettuce, Garlic

124. Carrot is a rich source of:(1) Carotene(2) Cynacobalamine(3) Pyridnme(4) All of the above

125. Pusa Yamdagni is variety of(1) Radish (2) Potato

(3) Carrot (4) Spinach

126. Forking of carrot is owing to(1) Excess of P (2) Compact soil(3) Excess of N (4) None of these

127. Average seed yield/ha of Asian carrots is(1) 2-3 q (2) 5-6 q

(3) Compact soil (4) All of these

128. Local red round golden ball is a cross of(1) Pusa Sadabahar(2) Pusa Kanchan

(3) Pusa Yamdagini(4) Pusa Rakshak

129. Pusa Meghali carrot is developed by the crossingof(1) Pusa Yamdagni, HC-1(2) Pusa Yamdagni, Nantes(3) Nantes, HC-1(4) Pusa Keser, Nantes

130. Black rot of carrot is caused by(1) Botrytis cinaria

(2) Alternaria radicina

(3) Erwinia carotovaro

(4) None of these

131. Cavity spot in carrot is caused by(1) Deficiency of calcium

(2) High potassium(3) Both of the above(4) None of these

132. Radish scab is caused by

(1) Pythium aphamidermatu(2) Pythium ultimatum(3) Streptomyces sp.


133. Powdery mildew of cucurbits is caused by:(1) Altemaria brassicicola(2) Pythium ultimatium(3) Sphacrotheca fuliginea(4) None of the above

134. Clubrot and Black rot diseases are found in(1) Chilli (2) Turnip

(3) Pea (4) Cabbage

135. In upper hills potato is sown in(1) January (2) May(3) September (4) December

136. The average yield of potato in the world is around(1) 15 tonnes/ha (2) 16 tonnes/ha(3) 17 tonnes/ha (4) 18 tonnes/ha

137. What is the rank of India in potato production inthe world?(1) First (2) Third

(3) Fifth (4) Seventh

138. Black heart of potato is owing to(1) Efficiently of CO2(2) Lack of O2(3) Efficiency of micronutrient(4) All of the above

139. Temperature and relative humidity for storage ofpotato is(1) 3.1C and 60-70% RH(2) 3.3C and 80-85% RH(3) 3.5C and 75-80% RH

(4) 3.7C and 90-95% RH

140. Dormancy of Solanum tuberosum tuber can bebroken through the use of(1) IAA (1%)(2) Cholorohydrine (3%)(3) Gibberellic acid (5%)(4) Etherel (0.5%)

141. Tristiza virus is transmitted by

(1) Insects(2) Aphid

(3) Pests


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142. Farming System is(1) Crop System(2) Cropping System

(3) Crop Rotation(4) All of the above

143. The principle of crop rotation is(1) The crops with tap with roots should be

followed by those which have a fibrous rootsystem

(2) The leguminous crops should be grown after

non-leguminous crops(3) More exhaustive crops should be following

by less exhaustive crops(4) Selection of the crops should be demand-

based(5) All of the above

144. The crop of the same family ........ in succession

because they act like alternate hosts for manyinsects, pests and diseases

(1) should be grown(2) should not be grown(3) both of the above on 50% basis(4) None of the above

145. In crop rotation crops should be grown(1) On slopy lands which are prove to erosion(2) Under dry farming the crop should be such

which can tolerate the draught(3) In low lying and flood prone areas the crops

should be such which can tolerate waterstagnation

(4) The selection of crops should be economical

(5) The crops selective should suit to the soil andclimate condition


146. Crop rotation is essential because(1) Agricultural operations can be done timely

for all the crops(2) Soil fertility is restored

(3) Maintains physical properties of the soil(4) Helps in controlling insects, pests, and

diseases(5) Controls the weeds in the fields(6) All of the above

147. Which of the following(s) is true for crop

rotation?(1) It helps for proper utilization of all the

resources and inputs(2) Farmers can get better price for his produces

because of higher demands in the market(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

148. Rotational Intensity is found out by(1) Calculation of the number of crops grown in

a rotation

(2) Multiplication of 100

(3) Division of the duration of that rotation(4) All of the above

149. Suppose if maize-barley-late potato-green gram

are grown in first year and moong-potato-maizeare grown in second year. What will be itsRotation Intensity?(1) 350% (2) 300%(3) 250% (4) 400%

150. An example of relay cropping is(1) Maize-wheat

(2) Maize-wheat-chari(3) Maize-potato-wheat-lobia(4) Paddy-wheat-sugarcane

151. Alley cropping means(1) Growing of pastures in between two widely

spaced rows of fast growing trees(2) Growing of field crops in between two

widely spaced rows of fast growing trees(3) Growing of only short duration crops in

between two widely spaced of fast growingtrees

(4) Growing of only fodder crops in between twowidely spaced rows of fast growing trees

152. Maize-potato-wheat greengram is an example of(1) Double cropping(2) Multistoried cropping(3) Relay cropping(4) Intercropping

153. Specialized farming is an example of(1) Type of farming

(2) System of farming(3) Capitalistic farming


154. Which Mexican wheat came in India?(1) Lermareja(2) Sonara - 63(3) Sonara - 64


155. Sustainable agriculture yield can be obtainedthrough(1) More resources

(2) More subsidies(3) More technological support

(4) Better prices of the produce

156. Which of the following is not a system offarming?(1) State farming(2) Collective farming(3) Co-operative farming(4) Dry farming

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157. Rotation of crops means?(1) Different crops are grown on a piece of land

in a pre-planned succession to maintain soil

fertility besides higher crop production(2) Growing two crops at the same time on a

piece of land in either different row ratio ormixed together

(3) Growing crops on a piece of land over a fixedperiod and their interaction with farm

resources and other farm enterprises withavailable technology


158. Why do we use intercropping?(1) Suppression of weed(2) Reduction in plant and disease(3) Stability in more yield(4) All of the above

159. Which of the following is / are the advantages of

intercropping?(1) Improvement of soil health

(2) Improve agro eco-system(3) Better use of growth resources including

light, nutrient and water(4) All of the above

160. What are disadvantages of intercropping?(1) Labour intensive(2) Control of pests and diseases or chemical

weed control(3) Mechanisation is difficult(4) Adverse competitive effect by allelopathy(5) All of the above

161. The direct or indirect harmful effect on one plant

or another through the production of chemicalsubstances that escape into the environment(1) Main crop(2) Component crop(3) Completion crop(4) Allelopathy

162. In submontane north-west region an efficientdouble cropping system has following cropsrotation(1) Rice-Wheat

(2) Rice-Chickpea(3) Corn-Chickpea

(4) Soybean-Wheat(5) All of the above

163. Who is associated with Narmada BachaoAndolan?(1) A. B. Vajpayee(2) Medha Patkar(3) Mamata Bannerjee

(4) Sunder Lal Bahuguna

164. In plains of eastern Uttar Pradesh an efficient

double cropping system is

(1) Rice-Linseed(2) Corn-Safflower(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

165. In Bundelkhand region of Uttaranchal an efficientdouble cropping system is(1) Rice-Wheat(2) Rice-Chickpea

(3) Sorghum-Chickpea(4) Moongbean-Wheat(5) All of the above

166. In submontane soils of north-east Punjab anefficient double cropping system is(1) Corn-mustard (2) Maize-wheat(3) Paddy-wheat (4) Cotton-wheat(5) All of the above

167. Paddy-Transplanted Gobhi sarson and cotton-

transplanted Gobhi sarson are efficient doublecropping system in

(1) Vidarbha region(2) Bundelkhand region(3) Submontane soils of the north-cast Punjab(4) Malwa Plateau

168. In submontane soils of Jammu an efficient croprotation takes place as(1) Corn-Mustard(2) Corn-Safflower(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

169. Moong bean-Safflower crop rotation suits to

(1) Vidarbha region(2) Malwa Plateau

(3) Bundelkhand region(4) None of the above

170. In Malwa plateau the famous crop rotation is(1) Sorghum-Safflower(2) Sorghum-Chickpea

(3) Soybcan-Safflower(4) All of the above

171. If the yield of each crop is greater than theexpected yield, it is called

(1) Mutual inhibition(2) Inter co-operation

(3) Compensation(4) None of the above

172. The Components of soil are(1) Mineral material(2) Organic matter(3) Water and air(4) All of the above

173. How many kinds of main rocks are there?

(1) 1 (2) 2

(3) 3 (4) 4

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174. Igneous rocks are formed by the(1) Cooling, hardening and crystallizing of

various kinds of lavas(2) Consolidation of fragmentary rock materials

and the products of their decomposition bywater

(3) Action of intense heat and high pressure orboth resulting in considerable change the

texture and mineral composition(4) Weathering

175. The common sedimentary rocks are(1) conglomerate(2) sandstone(3) shale and limestone(4) All of the above

176. The common igneous rocks found in India are(1) granites (acidic)

(2) basalts or the deccan trap (basic)(3) Both (1) and (b)


177. Unconsolidated sedimentary rocks are the formsof(1) alluvial deposits

(2) aeolian deposits(3) glacial deposits(4) All of the above

178. The principal agents of physical weathering are(1) Temperature(2) Wind and Water(3) Plants and Animals


179. The Chemical decomposition of rocks is broughtabout by(1) Solution(2) Hydration(3) Hydrolysis(4) Carbonation

(5) Oxidation and Reduction(6) All of the above(7) None of the above

180. Phosphorus fixation refers to the phenomenon of

(1) absorption of P2O5 by the plant and synthesisof biological compounds

(2) leaching of from soil by percolating waters(3) conversion of soluble phosphorus into plant

unavailable forms(4) anion exchange with colloidal constituents of

soil

181. The ratio of organic carbon to organic matter insoils is

(1) 1.0 1.7 (2) 1.0 2.0(3) 1.7 1.0 (4) 20.0 1.0

182. The process of soil formation include(1) the addition of organic and mineral materials(2) the loss of these materials from the soil(3) the translation of materials from one point to

another within the soil callus(4) the transformation of mineral and organic

substances(5) None of the above(6) All of the above

183. Pedology means(1) a study of soil profile important both from

standpont of soil formation and soildevelopment

(2) a study of crop husbandry(3) a coarse grained soil(4) None of the above

184. Shamrock is the emblem of which country?(1) Denmark

(2) Ireland(3) Spain

(4) Italy

185. A unit of Kaolinte crystal lattice consists of silicaand aluminium in the ratio of(1) 1 2 (2) 2 1

(3) 1 1 (4) 1 3

186. A unit of Montmorillonite crystal lattice consistsof silica and alumina in the ratio of(1) 1:2 (b) 2 1(3) 2 3 (d) 3 2

187. A unit of illite consists of

(1) silica(2) alumina

(3) potassium(4) All of the above

188. The CEC value of kaolinite is .. me / 100 g.(1) 3-10 (2) 10-30(3) 80-150 (4) None of these

189. The CEC value of illite is ..... me/100 g.(1) 10-20 (2) 10-40(3) 20-30 (4) 10-30

190. The CEC value of montmorillonite ..... is me/ 100g.

(1) 80-140 (2) 80-150(3) 80-160 (4) 80-170

191. If a soil has more than 15% exchangeable sodiumit is considered to be(1) acidic(2) alkali(3) neutral


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192. Humus soil contains carbon, oxygen, nitrogen,hydrogen and ash in the ratio of:(1) 10 7 1 1 1(2) 7 10 1 1 1

(3) 1 7 10 1 1(4) None of the above

193. Organic carbon is found .................. % in deepblack soil.

(1) 0.28 - 1.10(2) 0.68 - 6.53(3) 0.34 - 0.77


194. Humus soil contains carbon..............%.(1) 35 (2) 50(3) 5 (4) 5

195. There is a net increase in the mineralization oforganic nitrogen in soil when

(1) C N = 20 - 30 1(2) C N = 20 1

(3) C N = 30 1(4) nitrogen is taken up by the crops

196. Soils with high pH are generally deficient in(1) Zn and Mn (2) B and Fe

(3) Cu and Mo (4) Ca and Mg

197. Central Institute of Agricultural Engineering islocated at(1) Baroda (2) Mumbai(3) Bhopal (4) Barrackpore

198. A power-tiller operated multi-crop planter is

developed by(1) CIHPET, Ludhiana

(2) HPKV, Palampur(3) MPKV, Rahuri(4) None of the above

199. The seed planters are available in different sizesviz single row, two row and............ according to

the source of power.(1) Four rows (2) Five rows(3) Six rows (4) Seven rows

200. A vertical conveyor reaper windrower is designed

for harvest crop at(1) CIRCOT, Mumbai

(2) MPKV, Rahuri(3) PAU, Ludhiana(4) CIAE, Bhopal

201. The labour requirements potato planters arereduced to..........to man/hrs than 100 to 120man/hr used in manual planting of potatoes.(1) 30 to 40 (2) 40 to 50

(3) 50 to 60 (4) 60 to 70

202. Punjab Agricultural University, Ludhiana hasdeveloped mounted type semiautomatic drip typesugarcane planter. A tractor of 25 or more horse

power can be used for operating this machine.The field capacity of this machine is ha/day.(1) 2.43 (2) 2.02(3) 1.62 (4) 0.81

203. A power tiller operated orchard sprayer is

developed by ......................... centre of AICRP onpower tillers(1) HPKV, Shimla

(2) MPKV, Rahuri(3) CIPHET, Ludhiana(4) All of the above

204. One can plant ..................... of potato in a waywith a tractor mounted row and space maker cum

fertilizer applicator and a 3 bottom ridger.(1) 4.05-4.86 ha

(2) 5.67-6.48 ha(3) 2.43-3.24 ha

(4) 1.62-2.43 ha

205. The planter is suitable for sowing .. usingappropriate seed plates.(1) small and bold seeds

(2) large and bold seeds(3) only large seeds(4) None of the above

206. In a semi-automatic plants with audible timingdevice, the row width, plant spacing and depthcan be adjusted and controlled. Row spacing canbe controlled from 45 to 75 cm. A team of 4 to 5

person can plant .. to .. ha/day.(1) 2.43-2.83 (2) 2.02-2.43

(3) 1.62-2.43 (4) 1.21-2.43

207. Central Institute of Post-harvest Engineering andTechnology is located at(1) Lalitpur (2) Ludhiana(3) Delhi (4) Dehradun

208. Tractor mounted ring fed potato planter canplant.......... to ...........ha 8 hr/day.(1) 0.60-0.81 (2) 0.81-1.01(3) 1.01-1.21 (4) 1.21-1.62

209. A power-litter-operated Potato planter-cum-

fertilizer applicator is developed by(1) CIAE, Bhopal(2) MPKV, Rahuri(3) HPKV, Palampur(4) All of these

210. The population of draft animal in Indiais..............millions.

(1) 80 (2) 70(3) 60 (4) 50

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211. A pair of bullocks has about............ hp for usualfarm work.(1) 1.0 (2) 2.0(3) 3.0 (4) 4.0

212. In which type of engine liquid fuel under highpressure of 105 kg. per sq. cm or above at theright moment directly into the combustionchamber which contain highly compressed air.

(1) Carbucrator (2) Diesel(3) Duel fuel (4) All of these

213. Which of the following device is used forchanging the voltage from one value to anotherwithout a change in frequency?(1) Fuel Nozzles (2) Piston(3) Transformer (4) Power Station

214. The desi wooden plough is the most commonlyused implement of puddling on small farms of

India. It is also used for dry land tillage. Output ofthis plough is usually-ha/day

(1) 0.2 to 0.3 (2) 0.5 to 0.8(3) 0.6 to 0.8 (4) 1.62 to 2.43

215. The field capacity of the planter was ........... fordifferent crops with field efficiency from 71.5 to

75%.(1) 0.50-0.58 ha/hr(2) 0.20 - 0.28 ha/hr(3) 0.40 - 0.48 ha/hr(4) None of the above

216. The strole-Bore - Ratio of tractor engine is about(1) 1.0 (2) 2.00

(3) 1.50 (4) 1.25

217. A 6 - row tractor mounted inclined plate planter isdesigned and developed by(1) CIAE, Bhopal(2) PAU, Ludhiana(3) CIPHET, Ludhiana(4) All of the above

218. Piston speed of the high speed tractor enginerange between ........... m/min.(1) 100 to 500 (2) 200 to 500(3) 300 to 500 (4) 400 to 500

219. A wide swath high clearance tractor sprayer has

been developed by ........ its effective fieldcapacity is about 3 ha/hr.(1) CCSHAU, Hisar(2) PAU, Ludhiana(3) HSR, Lucknow(4) SBI, Coitnbatore

220. ..................is a special system of leveling chiefly

employed for establishing bench marks with highprecision at widely distributed point.(1) Precise leveling

(2) Transverse levelling

(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

221. There are.......... types of tractors.

(1) 1 (2) 5(3) 2 (4) 4

222. Total breeds of Cattle in India are(1) 28 (2) 27

(3) 10 (4) 30

223. Total number of breeds of buffalo is

(1) 7 (2) 10(3) 15 (4) 8

224. Famous cattle breeds of Gujarat are(1) Kankrej and Gir(2) Hariana(3) Sahiwal(4) Sindhi

225. Kankrej is a

(1) draught(2) dual purpose(3) milch(4) None of the above

226. Gujarat is name of Kankrej in(1) Gujarat (2) Brazil(3) USA (4) UK

227. Female Tharparker is a(1) good draught animal(2) excellent milk breed(3) poor draught animal


228. Male Tharparker is a(1) good draught animal(2) excellent meat breed(3) poor draught animal(4) None of the above

229. Most popular dual-purpose cattle breed of Indo-gangetic plains is(1) Hariana(2) Surti(3) Meharana


230. Krishna valley cattle breed is native of:(1) along the river Krshna and adjoining are

areas of Karnatan. .(2) Karnataka(3) Tamil Nadu(4) Gujarat

231. Male Krishna valley were used to

(1) carry military equipment(2) loads

(3) meat


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232. Ongole breed is suitable for(1) heavey draught work(2) light agricultural work(3) meat


233. Ongole is found in(1) Guntur, Andhra Pradesh(2) Karnataka

(3) Maharashtra(4) Gujarat

234. Santa-Gertrudis breed of texas has inheritance of(1) Ongole (2) Hariana(3) Tharparker (4) Sahiwal

235. Rathi is found in(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Bihar

(3) Assam (4) Rajasthan

236. Gir is native of(1) Punjab (2) Gujarat

(3) Uttar Pradesh (4) Bihar

237. Most popular export cattle is(1) Gir (2) Hariana(3) Sahiwal (4) Rathi

238. In Brazil Gyr is name of(1) Gir (2) Rathi(3) Surti (4) Mehsana

239. Indo-Brazil cattle has been developed by:(1) India(2) Brazil

(3) South America(4) None of the above

240. Hometract of famous Red Sindhi cattle is:(1) Karanchi, Hyderabad of Pakistan(2) Pakistan(3) Punjab(4) Gujarat

241. Red Sindhi was used to develop (1)Karan Swiss

(2) Frieswal(3) Sunnandini


242. Sahiwal cattle is native of:.(1) Punjab (2) Haryana(3) Gujarat (4) Pakistan

243. Best breed of Asian continent is(1) Sahiwal(2) Hariana(3) Rathi


244. In West Indies new breed was developed bycrossing Jersey M/F(1) Sahiwal(2) Rathi

(3) Gir(4) None of the above

245. At Vijayanajram State breed developed was(1) Hallikar

(2) Krishna Valley(3) Rathi(4) None of the above

246. Hallikar was used by Tipu Sultan for(1) Carrying cannons(2) Draught(3) Milk(4) Meat

247. West Bengal University of Agriculture and

Fisheries Science is located at(1) Kolkata

(2) Barrackpore(3) Kalyani(4) None of the above

248. Fish production during 2000 was............. million

Tonnes India.(1) 55.81 (2) 0.5581(3) 5.581 (4) 558.1

249. During 2000-2001 subsidies to fish farmersincreased for(1) Construction of ponds and tanks(2) Input for fish cultures

(3) Building of houses(4) All of the above

250. Mariculture technologies are developed for(1) Green mussel(2) Pearl oysters(3) Clams and sea weed(4) All of the above

251. PUFA stands for(1) Poly unsaturated Fatty Acid(2) Poly urinary follicle agency(3) Polymerase unsaturated fatty acid


252. The fish export has crossed the value of in 1999-2000(1) more than Rs 35010 millions(2) Rs 35010 millions(3) Less than Rs 35010 millions(4) None of the above

253. What is the position of India in inland fish

production in world ?(1) First (2) Second

(3) Third (4) Fourth

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254. Central Institute of Fisheries Education is locatedat(1) Solan (2) Kochi(Cochin)(3) Mumbai (4) None of these

255. WSSV stands for(1) Waste Soil Salinity Virus(2) White Spot Syndrome Virus(3) White Spot Syndrome Vessel


256. What is the position of India in fish production in

the world ?(1) 5 (2) 6(3) 7 (4) 8

257. In India, Integrated Rural DevelopmentProgramme was adopted in which of the Five

Year Plan?(1) First (2) Third

(3) Sixth (4) Eight

258. Marginal Farmers and Agricultural LaboursAgencies were set up on the recommendationmade by ............ during 1969.(1) NABARD(2) CDP

(3) NDRP(4) Rural Credit Review Committee

259. The Drought Prone Area Programme was initiatedin Maharashtra during the Fourth Plan period in(1) 1970-71 (2) 1980-81(3) 1990-91 (4) 2000-01

260. Anyodya Yojana Programme was launched on 2October, ............ for upliftment of the poorest ofthe poor families in every village of Rajasthan.(1) 1978 (2) 1976(3) 1977 (4) 1989

261. The National Scheme of Training of Rural Youthfor SelfEmployment was initiated from August

1979 with the principle objectives of(1) Provide employment of the poorest(2) Removal of unemployment among youth(3) Study of tribal areas(4) Systematic training of backward youth

262. Jawahar Rozgar Yojana was announced and

implemented on 28th April ............ by VillagePanchayat all over the country.(1) 1958 (2) 1968(3) 1989 (4) 1993

263. Firka Development Project was started for theRural Development in India during 1947 bywhich of the State Government.

(1) Maharashtra (2) Punjab(3) Haryana (4) Tamil Nadu

264. Shriniketan project was developed by ShriRabindranath Tagore in collaboration with ...........in 1921 at Shriniketan in Bengal for the uplift of

the villagers.(1) Spencer Hatch (2) W S Wiser(3) L K Elmhirst (4) Albert Mayer

265. Which of the following project was started by Mr.Specher Hatch in Travancore State under the

auspices of YMCA in 1921?(1) Sahibabad (2) Etawah(3) Delhi (4) Marthandam

266. Which of the following project was originallystarted to rehabilitate the displaced person fromPakistan?(1) Etawah (2) Nilokheri(3) IVS (4) Sevagram

267. In training and visit system each sub-divisions

extension officer supervises and providestechnical support to the eight........... under this

jurisdiction.(1) PAU (2) TNAU(3) AEO (4) KAU

268. Subdivisional extension officers has a team of

subject matter specialists, each team has threespecialist from which of the following discipline(1) Agronommy,Plant-Proteetion, Extension(2) Botany, Horticulture, Agronomy(3) Agricultural Extension, Economics,

Agronomy(4) None of the above

269. Which of the following officer is responsible forarranging forthrightly training session to all staff

in T & V system.(1) CSAUA & T (2) GBPUA & T(3) GAU (4) SMS

270. Which of the following authority is responsiblefor the smooth operation of all extension activities

in the district that comprise the zone?(1) PAO (2) SDEO(3) JDA (4) AEO

271. In India Panchayati Raj system was introudced by

the recommendation of committee(1) Basant Rao Patil

(2) Indira Gandhi(3) Ashoka Mehata(4) Balawantrai Mehta

272. Which of the following is the major characteristicof good extension programme?(1) Awarenso(2) Adoption

(3) Flexible(4) None of the above

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289. Which of the following is the major principle ofmethod demonstration?(1) Seeing is believing(2) Learning by doing

(3) To develop leadership(4) None of the above

290. Reserve Bank of India was established in year(1) 1910 (2) 1923

(3) 1946 (4) 1929

291. The unit of development community

Development programme was(1) Tahsil (2) State(3) Village (4) District

292. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)was established in

(1) 1909 (2) 1923(3) 1946 (4) 1929

293. Which of the following is the principle objective

of extension education?(1) Teaching of Rural People(2) Development of Leadership(3) Development of Rural people(4) None of the above

294. Which of the following is the extension teachingmethods it includes posters, photographs, filmstrips, black boards, etc.(1) Audio-visual (2) Visual(3) Written (4) Spoken

295. Indian Agricultural Research Institute was

established at Pusa in Bihar in(1) 1901 (2) 1910

(3) 1905 (4) 1925

296. The basic idea of community developmentprogramme was(1) Building of School(2) Building of Roads

(3) Building of Human being(4) None of the above

297. The process of teaching rural people, how to livebetter by learning ways that improve their form,

home and community institution(1) Extension Work

(2) Extension Programme(3) Extension Education(4) None of the above

298. Which of the following step of Extensioneducation process consist of review of previousefforts and results which reveal a new situation?(1) Reconsideration

(2) Evaluation(3) Analysis of situation

(4) Deciding upon objectives

299. A body of general principles or laws of a field ofknowledge activity is known as:(1) Education(2) Extension

(3) Amplification(4) None of the above

300. A process by which a person becomes changed inhis behaviour through self activity is known as

(1) Teaching (2) Learning(3) Amplification (4) Education

301. Which of the following Extension teachingmethod is face to face type of individual contactby the extension worker with the farmer at hishome?(1) Farm and Home visit(2) Office call(3) Result demonstration(4) None of the above

302. Farm and Home visit method is more

advantageous toward(1) Quick communication(2) Gaining confidence of farmers(3) Crediting general awareness among farmers(4) None of the above

303. Which of the following is fundamental objectiveof method demonstration conducted by theextension worker?(1) Show worth of a practice to the farmer(2) Teach a skill to the farmer(3) Influence the farmer(4) Influence the authority

304. What is the important advantage of suing farm

publications?(1) Useful for developing new techniques(2) Can reach a large number of people quickly

and simultaneously(3) Reach people directly(4) Arouse and sustain interest

305. Which of the following is a medium for masscommunication and tool for giving informationand entertainment?(1) Circular letter

(2) Office call(3) Telephone call


306. Which of the following is an instructionalcommunicating device in which the message canbe heard as well as seen?(1) Visual (2) Audio(3) Audio-visual (4) Mass contact

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307. Which of the following is an instructional orcommunicating device can be used as audio-visual aids?(1) Television

(2) Dramas and Puppet shows(3) Sound films(4) All of the above

308. Which of the following is a process of change

from the traditional way of living to progressiveway of living?(1) Motivation

(2) Communication(3) Rural development(4) Extension education

309. The art and science of helping adult to learn isknown as

(1) Sociology(2) Psychology

(3) Dendrology(4) All of the above

310. National Extension Service Programme wasstated in India during(1) 1965 (2) 1948(3) 1953 {d) 1955

311. In India the Pilot Project for Rural Developmentwas started in(1) 1971 (2) 1980(3) 1981 (4) 1979

312. In India the Rural Landless EmploymentGuarantee Scheme was started during

(1) 1971 (2) 1980(3) 1981 (4) 1979

313. The Eight Five Year plan was started during theyear(1) 1990-91 (2) 1992-93(3) 1993-94 (4) 1994-95

314. Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Schemewas started in(1) 1957 (2) 1978(3) 1967 (4) 1970

315. In India the use of television was started in(1) 1962 (2) 1967

(3) 1982 (4) 1976

316. In India NABARD was established in year(1) July 1981 (2) July 1982(3) October 1983 (4) July 1984

317. Command Area Development Programme waslauuched in

(1) 1971 (2) 1972(3) 1973 (4) 1974

318. The art of directing the efforts or harnessing theenergy of human being to the attainment oforganization needs and objectives is known(1) Administration

(2) Supervision(3) Community development(4) Evaluation

319. Which of the following is the key person or the

pivot of the Community DevelopmentProgramme, helping the village people inimproving all phases of village life?

(1) Dirtrict Magistrate(2) Gramsevak(3) Basic Siksha Adhikari(4) Block Development Officer

320. Which of the following authority attending the

administrative duties in community developmentprogramme?

(1) Gramsevak(2) BDO

(3) Village Extension Worker(4) Tahsildar

321. A group of people in more or less permanentassociation who are organized for their collection

activities and who feel that they belong together isknown as(1) Family (2) House(3) Society (4) Community

322. Which of the following is social and cultural unitpossesses a basically uniform organization ?(1) Family (h) Village

(3) Society (4) Block

323. The role and status of one or more individuals inthe structure and functioning of grouporganizations which enable these group to meet aneed is known as(1) Personality (2) Leadership(3) Organization (4) Society

324. The degree to which an innovation is consistentwith existing values and past experience of theadopters known as(1) Computability

(2) Divisibility(3) Communicability


325. Which of the following is one of the importantfunction of extension workers?(1) To teach discipline to farmers(2) To diffuse new ideas and practices(3) To implement demonstration in the field(4) None of the above

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326. Which of the following is the fundamentalobjective of Community Development in India?(1) Destination man(2) Development of people

(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

327. Which of the following bank does not providefinance to the farmer for capital working?

(1) Nationalized Bank(2) Regional Rural Bank(3) Primary Credit Society

(4) Primary Land Development Bank

328. Regional Rural Bank was established under thesponsorship of nationalized bank(1) 1964 (2) 1974(3) 1954 (4) 1984

329. In India Panchayati Raj System was started first

in which of the following state(1) Rajasthan

(2) Andhra Pradesh(3) Maharashtra(4) Karnataka

330. Which of the following is national level body for

policy formulation of rural developmentprogramme in India?(1) Community Development Programme(2) Election Commission(3) Planning Commission(4) National Development Council

331. Average product is equal to marginal product

when(1) Average product is minimum

(2) Average product is maximum(3) Marginal product is zero(4) None of the above

332. When we study a problem from particular togeneral, the method is known as

(1) Inductive method(2) Deductive method(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) None of the above

333. When marginal product is zero, the total productis

(1) Minimum(2) Maximum(3) Zero(4) None of the above

334. The economics of farming is dependent upon(1) Farm size(2) Agri. price

(3) Av. yield and cost of production(4) All of these

335. The cost which is not paid to others, is called(1) Implicit cost(2) Explicit cost(3) Both (1) and (2)

(4) None of these

336. Extension in demand means(1) Change in demand due to change in Income(2) Change in demand due to change in price

(3) Both (1) and (2)(4) None of these

337. The cost incurred by a firm in purchasing anyfactor of production is referred to as(1) Implicit cost(2) Variable cost(3) Explicit cost

338. At equilibrium, the slope of the indifference curveis.

(1) Greater than the slope of the budget line(2) Smaller than the slope of the budget line

(3) Equal to the slope of the budget line(4) None of these

339. When total utility increases marginal utility is(1) Positive (2) Negative

(3) Zero (4) None of these

340. If the quantity of a commodity demanded does notchange when its price changes, the demand curveis(1) Positive slope (2) Vertical(3) Negative slope (4) None of these

341. The meaning of word Economics is most closelyassociated with the word

(1) Free (2) Scarce(3) Unlimited (4) None of these

342. A Market structure with large number of firmsselling homogeneous product is known as(1) Prefect Competition

(2) Monopoly market(3) Monopolistic Competition(4) None of these

343. The canons of taxation were given by

(1) Robbin (2) Pigou(3) Adam Smith (4) None of these

344. The want satisfying power of a commodity iscalled(1) Consumption (2) Utility(3) Production (4) Demand

345. Sun light is(1) Economic good

(2) Free good(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) None of these

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346. The demand for common salt is(1) Inelastic(2) Prefectly elastic(3) highly in elastic

(4) None of these

347. Supply for perishables in very short run.(1) can be decreased(2) can be increased

(3) remains constant(4) None of these

348. The total fixed cost curve(1) decreases as output increases(2) increases with the level of output(3) remains constant at all the output levels(4) None of these

349. Diversified farming is a(1) Type of farming

(2) System of farming(3) Both of the above


350. Enterprise budgeting deals with input outputrelationship of(1) A single enterprise of the farm

(2) A set of different enterprises(3) Both of the above(4) None of the above

351. If substitution ratio is equal to price ratio then costwill be(1) Increasing (2) Decreasing(3) Minimum (4) Maximum

352. If change in price is 1% and charge in demand is

1% then demand will be called(1) Inelastic(2) Elastic(3) Proportionate elastic(4) None of the above

353. The amount added to total cost for producingadditional unit of output is known as(1) Average cost (2) Total cost(3) Marginal cost (4) None of them

354. The return from best alternate use of that inputforgone by putting it to the present use is known

as(1) Total cost(2) Marginal cost(3) Opportunity cost(4) Average cost

355. The law which is very useful in determining thebest use of limited resources is

(1) Law of substitution(2) Law of opportunity cost

(3) Law of diminishing return

(4) None of these

356. If two items are complementary then demand ofone item will increase for ...........in price of

another item(1) Decrease (2) Increase(3) No effect (4) Not known

357. Which of the following is not component of farmbusiness

(1) Land (2) Capital(3) Management (4) Environment

358. Which of the following contributes Rob-binsmore to national income and stand next toagriculture(1) Transportation(2) Mining and Manufactures(3) Forestry(4) Animal husbandry

359. Gross return + change in inventory total cost isequal to

(1) Tax(2) Farm Income(3) Family Income(4) None of the above

360. Opportunity cost is(1) Cost of cultivation(2) Cost of next best alternative Foregone(3) Cost of production(4) Cost of supplementary enterprise.

401. What is the average population of Indias villages(1) Less than 1000

(2) More than 1000(3) More than 1500

(4) Less than 500

362. Economics is primarily a study of(1) Wealth (2) Wants(3) Man (4) None of these

363. Mans wants are(1) Unlimited (2) Limited(3) Scarce (4) Countable

364. Means to satisfy human wants are

(1) Limited(2) Unlimited

(3) 1 and 2 both(4) None of the above

365. Marshalls definition of Economics has beencriticised by(1) Robbins (2) Carlyle(3) Ricardo (4) Ruskin

366. The author of the Wealth of Nations was(1) Ricardo (2) Adam Smith

(3) Marshall (4) Robbins

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367. Economics is a.....Science(1) Political (2) Natural(3) Social (4) None of these

368. Economics is an............(1) Art(2) Art and Science both(3) Science(4) None of these

369. Laws of Economics are not as certain as(1) Moral laws

(2) Government laws(3) Physical laws(4) All above

370. Goodwill of a business is a(1) Non-material good

(2) Material and non-material(3) Material goods


371. Free goods have a great(1) Value in exchange(2) Transferability(3) Value in use(4) 1 and 2 both

372. Patents and copy-rights are(1) Non-material goods(2) Transferable goods(3) Material goods(4) Scarce goods

373. A table is a

(1) Non-material good(2) Material good

(3) Free good(4) None of the above

374. Tulsidass works are(1) International wealth(2) Social wealth

(3) Personal wealth(4) None of the above

375. Wealth is a(1) Flow (2) Fund

(3) Capital (4) Income

376. As income increases the expenditure on light, fueland rent generally(1) Decreases(2) Increases(3) Remains the same(4) None of the above

377. The expenditure on .... increase as income

increases(1) Luxuries (2) Necessaries

(3) Comfort (4) AU of these

378. The more we have of things, the desire foradditional units of it will be(1) More(2) Less

(3) Remains the same(4) None of the above

379. A consumer spends his income according to thelaw of

(1) Increasing cost(2) Least cost(3) diminishing marginal utility

(4) Equi-marginal utility

380. We get maximum satisfaction when(1) Average utility is decrease(2) Marginal utility is the same(3) Total utility is decrease(4) Total utility is the same

381. During the period of economic depression whichsector provides more stability to the economy

(1) Industries (2) Agriculture(3) Transport (4) Service sector

382. Utility of the last unit is called as(1) Initial utility

(2) Zero utility(3) Marginal utility(4) Total utility

383. A holding which allows a man a chance ofproducing sufficient to support himself and hisfamily in reasonable comfort after paying hisnecessary expenses is called

(1) Economic holding(2) Basic holding

(3) Optimum holding(4) Operational holding

384. When price rises, demand(1) Contracts(2) Increases

(3) Decreases(4) Remains the same

385. If more is demanded at the same price, it is a caseof

(1) Increase in demand(2) Extension in demand

(3) Decrease in demand(4) Contraction in demand

386. Creation of utility by way of marketing is knownas(1) Production (2) Exchange(3) Consumption (4) Distribution

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387. If more and more capital and labour are applied toa fixed piece of land, the system of cultivation offarming is known as(1) Extensive cultivation

(2) Large scale farming(3) Intensive cultivation(4) Large scale farming

388. The modern theory of population is called as

(1) Demand and supply theory of population(2) Classical theory of population(3) Optimum theory fo population


389. Which one of the following is not capital(1) Skill of a doctor(2) Cloth in a shop(3) Goodwill of business

(4) Furniture in a house

390. Mines and Fisheries are subject of the law of(1) Constant return

(2) Diminishing return(3) Increasing return(4) None of the above

391. In a manufacturing industry generally applies the

law of(1) Increasing return(2) Decreasing return(3) Constant return(4) All of the above

392. Rent arises under(1) Intensive cultivation

(2) Extensive cultivation(3) Both intensive cultivation and Extensive

cultivation(4) None of the above

393. The theory of rent is associated with the name of(1) Marshall (2) Pigou(3) Malthus (4) Ricardo

394. Quasi-rent rises in(1) Capital (2) Management

(3) Law (4) Labour395. The classical theory of interest is also called as

(1) Lonable funds theory(2) Real theory of interest

(3) Liquidity prefrence theory(4) Monetary theory of interest

396. Marshall defines Economics as(1) The study of human behaviour as a

relationship between ends and scarce meanswhich have alternative uses

(2) Fundamentally a science of scarcity

(3) The study of mankind in the ordinarybusiness of life

(4) An enquiry into the nature and causes of thewealth of nation

397. Utility in Economics means(1) Satisfaction(2) Pleasure

(3) Usefulness(4) Want satisfying power of an commodity.

398. Marginal utility of a commodity is the utilityderived from the purchase of(1) Any extra unit(2) The first unit

(3) The last one unit(4) All the units

399. Marginal cost is equal to(1) The difference between average cost and the

cost of the last unit produced(2) The extra cost of an additional unit produced(3) The average cost of the total output produced.

(4) The cost of the last but one unit produced.

400. Which one of the following is correct statementfor market(1) Potential buyers and sellers of the product.(2) An organization which provides facilities for

exchange of commodities(3) A place where commodities are bought and

sold.(4) All of these

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Answers Key

1.(2) 2.(2) 3.(1) 4.(1) 5.(1) 6.(3) 7.(1) 8.(1) 9.(2) 10.(3)11.(1) 12.(1) 13.(3) 14.(1) 15.(1) 16.(1) 17.(1) 18.(1) 19.(3) 20.(3)

21.(3) 22.(1) 23.(1) 24.(1) 25.(1) 26.(4) 27.(1) 28.(4) 29.(4) 30.(4)

31.(2) 32.(1) 33.(1) 34.(1) 35.(3) 36.(1) 37.(3) 38.(1) 39.(1) 40.(1)

41.(1) 42.(1) 43.(1) 44.(1) 45.(1) 46.(1) 47.(1) 48.(1) 49.(3) 50.(4)

51.(3) 52.(1) 53.(1) 54.(2) 55.(3) 56.(3) 57.(3) 58.(3) 59.(4) 60.(4)

61.(3) 62.(1) 63.(1) 64.(2) 65.(4) 66.(1) 67.(3) 68.(3) 69.(1) 70.(1)

71.(3) 72.(4) 73.(2) 74.(3) 75.(3) 76.(3) 77.(3) 78.(3) 79.(3) 80.(2)

81.(2) 82.(3) 83.(3) 84.(3) 85.(2) 86.(1) 87.(2) 88.(2) 89.(2) 90.(4)

91.(4) 92.(2) 93.(4) 94.(4) 95.(1) 96.(3) 97.(2) 98.(4) 99.(3) 100.(3)

101.(4) 102.(3) 103.(3) 104.(1) 105.(2) 106.(4) 107.(4) 108.(1) 109.(1) 110.(2)

111.(4) 112.(2) 113.(3) 114.(4) 115.(2) 116.(4) 117.(1) 118.(4) 119.(2) 120.(3)

121.(1) 122.(3) 123.(1) 124.(2) 125.(2) 126.(1) 127.(3) 128.(1) 129.(2) 130.(1)

131.(3) 132.(3) 133.(1) 134.(3) 135.(2) 136.(4) 137.(4) 138.(3) 139.(1) 140.(4)

141.(1) 142.(4) 143.(5) 144.(2) 145.(6) 146.(6) 147.(3) 148.(4) 149.(1) 150.(3)

151.(2) 152.(3) 153.(1) 154.(4) 155.(3) 156.(4) 157.(1) 158.(4) 159.(4) 160.(5)

161.(4) 162.(5) 163.(2) 164.(3) 165.(5) 166.(5) 167.(3) 168.(4) 169.(1) 170.(4)

171.(2) 172.(4) 173.(4) 174.(1) 175.(4) 176.(3) 177.(4) 178.(4) 179.(f) 180.(3)

181.(1) 182.(f) 183.(1) 184.(2) 185.(3) 186.(2) 187.(4) 188.(1) 189.(4) 190.(2)

191.(2) 192.(1) 193.(2) 194.(2) 195.(1) 196.(4) 197.(3) 198.(3) 199.(3) 200.(1)

201.(4) 202.(3) 203.(2) 204.(3) 205.(1) 206.(4) 207.(2) 208.(3) 209.(3) 210.(1)

211.(1) 212.(2) 213.(3) 214.(1) 215.(1) 216.(4) 217.(1) 218.(3) 219.(2) 220.(1)

221.(3) 222.(1) 223.(1) 224.(1) 225.(1) 226.(2) 227.(2) 228.(1) 229.(1) 230.(1)

231.(1) 232.(1) 233.(1) 234.(1) 235.(4) 236.(2) 237.(1) 238.(1) 239.(2) 240.(1)

241.(1) 242.(2) 243.(1) 244.(1) 245.(1) 246.(1) 247.(1) 248.(2) 249.(4) 250.(4)

251.(1) 252.(1) 253.(2) 254.(4) 255.(2) 256.(3) 257.(3) 258.(4) 259.(1) 260.(3)

261.(2) 262.(3) 263.(4) 264.(3) 265.(4) 266.(2) 267.(3) 268.(1) 269.(4) 270.(3)

271.(4) 272.(3) 273.(3) 274.(2) 275.(3) 276.(1) 277.(2) 278.(1) 279.(4) 280.(3)

281.(3) 282.(1) 283.(3) 284.(4) 285.(4) 286.(1) 287.(4) 288.(4) 289.(2) 290.(4)

291.(3) 292.(4) 293.(3) 294.(1) 295.(3) 296.(3) 297.(3) 298.(1) 299.(3) 300.(4)

301.(3) 302.(2) 303.(2) 304.(4) 305.(3) 306.(4) 307.(3) 308.(4) 309.(3) 310.(3)

311.(4) 312.(2) 313.(2) 314.(2) 315.(2) 316.(2) 317.(4) 318.(4) 319.(2) 320.(2)

321.(3) 322.(2) 323.(2) 324.(1) 325.(2) 326.(3) 327.(1) 328.(2) 329.(1) 330.(4)

331.(2) 332.(1) 333.(2) 334.(3) 335.(1) 336.(2) 337.(1) 338.(3) 339.(1) 340.(2)

341.(2) 342.(3) 343.(3) 344.(2) 345.(2) 346.(1) 347.(3) 348.(3) 349.(3) 350.(1)

351.(3) 352.(1) 353.(3) 354.(3) 355.(2) 356.(2) 357.(4) 358.(2) 359.(2) 360.(2)361.(1) 362.(3) 363.(1) 364.(1) 365.(1) 366.(2) 367.(3) 368.(2) 369.(3) 370.(1)

371.(3) 372.(1) 373.(2) 374.(2) 375.(2) 376.(2) 377.(3) 378.(2) 379.(4) 380.(3)

381.(2) 382.(3) 383.(1) 384.(3) 385.(1) 386.(1) 387.(3) 388.(1) 389.(4) 390.(2)

391.(3) 392.(2) 393.(4) 394.(1) 395.(2) 396.(3) 397.(4) 398.(1) 399.(2) 400.(4)

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